pgaiims-Fort-Worth-Star-Telegram

Q: Ovalbumin was injected into a rabbit. Which of the following classes of antibiotics are to be produced initially:

(a) IgG
(b) IgM
(c) IgE
(d) IgD.


                                                                                                   A: c. IgE

Q: All the following about carbohydrate antigens are true except:

(a) Good memory response.
(b) Poor immunogenicity.
(c) T-cell independent immunity.
(d) Polyclonal response.



                                                                                                   A: a. Good....

Q: Which of the following cell types are the most potent activators of naive T cells:

(a) B cells
(b) Follicular dendritic cells
(c) Mature dendritic cells.
(d) Macrophages.



                                                                                                   A: c. Mature.....

Q: Which of the following complement component is the common link in the classical and alternate pathway of the complement system :

(a) C1
(b) C2
(c) C3
(d) C4


                                                                                                   A: c. C3

Q: Visceral larva migrans is associated with:

(a) Strongyloids stercoralis.
(b) Ancylostoma braziliensis.
(c) Toxocara canis.
(d) Visceral leishmaniasis.



                                                                                                   A: c. Toxocara...

Q: A patient presents to the emergency department with history of persistent fever and cough. Radiological features are suggestive of pneumonia. Sputum examination reveals aerobic branching gram positive filaments, that are partially acid fast. Which of the following is the most likely etiological agent:

(a) Actinomyces israeli
(b) Nocardia asteroides.
(c) Aspergillus fumigatus.
(d) Staphylococcus aureus.


                                                                                                   A: b. Nocardia...

Q: Aflatoxins are produced by:

(a) Aspergillus flavus
(b) Aspergillus niger
(c) Aspergillus fumigatus
(d) Candida.



                                                                                                   A: a. Asp. flavus

Q: Which of the following is the most common fungal infection in immunocompetent patient:

(a) Candida
(b) Aspergillus
(c) Cryptococcus
(d) Penicillium.


                                                                                                   A: a. Candida

Q: All of the following are true about Parvovirus B-19, except:

(a) < 10% spread by transplacental route.
(b) Respiratory route is the primary mode of transmission.
(c) It is a DNA virus.
(d) Affects erythroid progenitors.



                                                                                                   A: a. < 10%....

Q: Which of the following is not true regarding Chlamydia trachomatis:

(a) Elementary body is metabolically active.
(b) It is biphasic.
(c) Reticulate body divides by binary fission.
(d) Inside the cell, it evades phagolysosome.



                                                                                                   A: a. Elementary....

Q: A female presents with symptoms and signs suggestive of meningitis. MRI scan reveals a ring enhancing lesion in the frontotemporal region, while CSF shows gram positive bacilli. Other findings are minimally abnormal. Which of the following organism is the most likely etiological agent:

(a) Listeria monocytogenes.
(b) Hemophilus influenza
(c) Pneumococcus
(d) Staphylococcus aureus.



                                                                                                   A: a. Listeria...

Q: All the following statements about Clostridium tetani are true, except:

(a) Spores are resistant to heat.
(b) Primary immunization consists of three doses.
(c) Incubation period is 6- 10 days.
(d) Person to person transmission does not occur.



                                                                                                   A: a. Spores....

Q: A farmer presents to the emergency department with painful inguinal lymphadenopathy and history of fever and flu like symptoms. Clinical examination reveals an ulcer in the leg. Which of the following stains should be used to detect suspected bipolar-stained organisms:

(a)Albert's stain
(b) Wayson's stain
(c) Ziehl Neelson stain.
(d) Mc Fayden's stian.


                                                                                                   A: b. Wayson's stain.

Q: Which of the following statements about campylobacter jejuni is false:

(a) Commonest agent responsible for campylobacteriosis.
(b) Poultry is a common source of infection.
(c) Humans are important reservoirs of infection.
(d) Associated with Guillain Barre syndrome.



                                                                                                   A: c. Humans...

Q: Which of the following statements about C. diphtheria is false:

(a) Toxin production is mediated by native chromosome.
(b) Organism maybe identified by tests for toxigenicity.
(c) Toxin acts by inhibiting protein synthesis.
(d) Toxin may affect heart and nerves.



                                                                                                   A: a. Toxin prodn...

Q: All the following are true about methicillin resistance in MRSA, except:

(a) Resistance is produced as a result of altered PBP's.
(b) Resistance maybe produced by hyperproduction of beta lactamase.
(c) Resistance is primarily mediated/transmitted by plasmids.
(d) Resistance maybe missed at incubation temp of 37 deg. C .



                                                                                                   A: c. Resistance is..

Q: C in C reactive protein stands for:

(a) Capsular polysaccharide in Pneumococcus.
(b) Concanavalin-a
(c) Calretinin
(d) Cellular.



                                                                                                   A: a. Capsular...

Q: All of the following agents have polysaccharide capsule related antigen-antibody responses, except:

(a) Pneumococcus
(b) Meningococus
(c) Hemophilus influenza
(d) Bordetella pertussis.


                                                                                                   A: Bordetella...l

Q: An eight year old child with history of pain and discharge from right ear presents with fever, neck rigidity and positive Kernig's sign. Discharge was stained with gram stain, which revealed gram positive cocci. Which of the following is the most likely organism:

(a) H. influenzae
(b) Staphylococcus
(c) Pneumococcus
(d) Pseudomonas.


                                                                                                   A: c. Pneumococcus

Q: Which of the following statements about Pneumococcus is false:

(a) Capsule aids in virulence.
(b) Commonest cause of otitis media.
(c) Causes mild form of meningitis.
(d) Respiratory tract of carriers is most important source of infection.



                                                                                                   A: c. Causes....

Q: A patient presents with signs of pneumonia. The bacterium obtained from sputum was a gram positive cocci, which showed alpha hemolysis on sheep agar. Which of the following tests will help to confirm the diagnosis:

(a) Bile solubility
(b) Coagulase test
(c) Bacitracin sensitivity
(d) CAMP test.


                                                                                                   A: a. Bile solubility

Q: Which of the following is the most commonly used fixative in diagnostic pathology:

(a) Formaldehyde
(b) Ethyl alcohol
(c) Mercuric chloride
(d) Picric acid.


                                                                                                   A: a. Formaldehyde

Q: Psammoma bodies are seen in all of the following except:

(a) Follicular carcinoma thyroid.
(b) Papillary carcinoma thyroid.
(c) Meningioma.
(d) Serous cystadenocarcinoma of ovary.



                                                                                                   A: Follicular....

Q: All the following are neuronal tumours except:

(a) Gangliocytoma
(b) Ganglioglioma
(c) Neurocytoma
(d) Ependymoma.



                                                                                                   A: d. Ependymoma.

Q: Necrotizing lymphadenitis is characteristically seen in:

(a) Kimura disease.
(b) Kikuchi disease.
(c) Hodgkin's disease.
(d) Castleman disease.



                                                                                                   A: b. Kikuchi disease

Q: All of the following are autoimmune diseases except:

(a) SLE
(b) Grave's disease.
(c) Myasthenia gravis.
(d) Sickle cell disease.



                                                                                                   A: d. Sickle cell...

Q: Which of the following antibodies is most frequently seen in antiphospholipid syndrome:

(a) beta 2 microglobulin antibody.
(b) Antinuclear antibody.
(c) Anti-centromere antibody.
(d) Anti-beta 2 glycoprotein antibody.


                                                                                                   A: d. Anti-beta2...

Q: Which is not true regarding Bernard soulier syndrome:

(a) Ristocetin aggregation is normal.
(b) Aggregation with collagen and ADP is normal.
(c) Large platelets.
(d) Thrombocytopenia.



                                                                                                   A: a. Ristocetin...

Q: Which of the following statements about platelet function defects is true:

(a) Normal platelet count with prolonged bleeding time.
(b) Thrombocytopenia with prolonged bleeding time.
(c) Thrombocytosis with prolonged bleeding time.
(d) Normal platelet count with normal bleeding time.



                                                                                                   A: a. Normal...

Q: HbH is associated  with :

(a) Deletion of 3 alpha genes.
(b) Deletion of 4 alpha genes.
(c) Deletion of 3 beta genes.
(d) Deletion of 4 beta genes.



                                                                                                   A: a. 3 alpha genes.

Q: All of the following are true about blood coagulation, except:

(a) Factor X is part of both intrinsic and extrinsic pathways.
(b) Extrinsic pathway is activated by contact with negatively charged surfaces.
(c) Intrinsic pathway can be activated in vitro.
(d) Calcium is required in several steps of coagulation.



                                                                                                   A: b. Extrinsic...

Q: All the following statements about xanthogranulomatous inflammation are true except:

(a) Foam cells are seen.
(b) Yellow  nodules are seen.
(c) Multinucleated giant cells are seen.
(d) Associated with tuberculosis.


                                                                                                   A: d. Asso....

Q: Most characteristic feature of acute inflammation is:

(a) Vasoconstriction
(b) Vascular stasis
(c) Vasodilation and increased permeability.
(d) Margination of leucocytes.



                                                                                                   A: c. Vasodilation..

Q: Which of the following enzymes are responsible for generating oxygen burst within neutrophils for killing intracellular bacteria:

(a) Superoxide dismutase
(b) Glutathione peroxidase
(c) Oxidase
(d) Catalase.


                                                                                                   A: c. Oxidase

Q: All of the following enzymes may contribute in generating free oxygen radicals within neutrophils for killing intracellular bacteria, except:

(a) Superoxide dismutase
(b) Glutathione peroxidase
(c) Oxidase
(d) Catalase.


                                                                                                   A: d. catalase

Q: Which of the following organelles plays a pivotal role in apoptosis:

(a) Mitochondria
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Nucleus
(d) Golgi apparatus.



                                                                                                   A: a. mitochondria

Q: Mineralocorticoid receptors are found in all of the following except:

(a) Liver
(b) Colon
(c) Hippocampus
(d) Kidney.



                                                                                                   A: a. Liver

Q: Alkalinization of urine is done during administration of which of the following chemotherapeutic drugs:

(a) Ara-C
(b) Methotrexate
(c) Cisplatin
(d) Ifosfamide.


                                                                                                   A: b. Methotrexate

Q: All of the following are known adverse effects of thalidomide except:

(a) Diarrhea
(b) Teratogenicity
(c) DVT
(d) Peripheral neuropathy.



                                                                                                   A: a. Diarrhea

Q: Which of the following antihypertensives should not be used in a patient on Lithium to prevent Lithium toxicity:

(a) Clonidine
(b) Beta blockers
(c) Calcium channel blockers
(d) Diuretics.


                                                                                                   A: d. Diuretics

Q: Which of the following is used in the treatment of thrombocytopenia secondary to myelosuppresive cancer chemotherapy:

(a) Filgrastim
(b) Sargramostim
(c) Oprelvekin
(d) Erythropoetin.


                                                                                                   A: Operlvekin

Q: All the following about Aprepitant are true except:

(a) Agonist at neurokinin receptor (NK1).
(b) Crosses the blood brain barrier.
(c) Metabolized by CYP3A4 pathway.
(d) Ameliorates nausea and vomiting of chemotherapy.



                                                                                                   A: a. Agonist....

Q: All the following statements about Erlotinib are true except:

(a) Tyrosine kinase inhibitor.
(b) Food decreases its absorption.
(c) Rashes may occur.
(d) Used in non small cell lung carcinoma.



                                                                                                   A: b. Food ...

Q: All of the following statements about Selective Estrogen Receptor Downregulator (SERD) are true except:

(a) It is a selective estrogen antagonist.
(b) Used in the treatment of breast cancer.
(c) Slower acting, safer and less effective than SERM.
(d) Maybe administered as ' once a month' dose .


                                                                                                  A: c. Slower...

Q: All of the following about Ranolazine are true except:

(a) Piperazine derived antianginal agent.
(b) Maybe used as first line agent in chronic angina.
(c) May improve glycemic control.
(d) Hypotension is an established adverse effect.



                                                                                                   A: d. Hypo....

Q: All of the following statements about meglitinides are true except:

(a) Act by stimulating insulin release.
(b) Decrease postprandial hyperglycemia.
(c) Hypoglycemia is less common with sulfonylureas.
(d) Act by decreasing insulin resistance.



                                                                                                   A: Act by decrea...

Q: Integrase inhibitors approved for HIV is:

(a) Raltegravir
(b) Indinavir
(c) Lopinavir
(d) Elvitegravir



                                                                                                   A: a. Ralte...

Q: Amphotericin B treatment mandates the monitoring of which of the following electrolytes:

(a) Na +
(b) Ca++
(c) K+
(d) Mg ++


                                                                                                   A: K+

Q: Prolonged treatment with INH leads to deficiency of:

(a) Pyridoxine
(b) Thiamine
(c) Pantothenic acid.
(d) Niacin.



                                                                                                   A: a. Pyridoxine

Q: A patient who has been given primaquine develops dark coloured urine one day after administration of the drug. The likely diagnosis is:

(a) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency.
(b) Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency.
(c) Galactose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency.
(d) Galactose-6-phosphatase deficiency.


                                                                                                   A: a. G6PD def...

Q: Which of the following agents is not associated with hyperthermia:

(a) Amphetamines
(b) MAO inhibitors
(c) Atropine
(d) Alcohol.



                                                                                                   A: d. Alcohol.

Q: All of the following about serotonin syndrome are true except:

(a) It is not an idiosyncratic reaction.
(b) Can be caused by SSRI
(c) Dantrone is the drug of choice.
(d) Associated with hyperthermia and hypertension.



                                                                                                   A: c. Dantrone ....

Q: Which of the following drug is most commonly used world wide in maintenance doses for opioid dependence:

(a) Naltrexone
(b) Methadone
(c) Imipramine
(d) Disulfiram.


                                                                                                   A: b. Methadone

Q: All of the following statements about epidural opioids are true except:

(a) Acts on the dorsal horn substantia gelatinosa.
(b) May cause pruritis.
(c) May cause respiratory depression.
(d) Gastrointestinal adverse effects are not seen.



                                                                                                   A:

Q: Opioid tolerance develops to all of the following actions except:

(a) Miosis
(b) Analgesia
(c) Euphoria
(d) Nausea and vomiting.



                                                                                                   A: a. Miosis

Q: Buprenorphine is classified as:

(a) Partial agonist at u receptor.
(b) Partial agonist at k receptor.
(c) Full agonist at u receptor.
(d) Full agonist at k receptor.



                                                                                                   A: a. Partial...u..

Q: All of the following are actions of muscarinic antagonists except:

(a) Decrease gastric secretions.
(b) Decrease respiratory secretions.
(c) Contract radial muscles of iris.
(d) Facilitates AV conduction.



                                                                                                   A:c. Contract...

Q: Two transgenic plants were genetically engineered using recombinant DNA technology. One plant was transformed using a plasmid vector with GFP gene and another plant was transformed with luciferase gene. Which of these two plants will glow spontaneously in the dark:

(a) Plant with GFP gene.
(b) Plant with Luciferase gene.
(c) Both plants.
(d) None of the above.

                                                                                                   A: b. Plant with lu...

Q: Method of fusing two cells in genetic recombination includes all of the following except:

(a) Fusion mediated by ethylene glycol.
(b) Fusion mediated by electric current.
(c) Fusion by viral transformation.
(d) Fusion by altering membrane viscosity.


                                                                                                   A: d. ....viscosity.

Q: Which of the following factors is responsible for deciding whether an immunoglobulin will remain membrane bound or get secreted:

(a) RNA splicing
(b) Class switching
(c) Differential RNA processing.
(d) Allelic exclusion.


                                                                                                   A: c. Differential...

Q: Which of the following process in a vector is used to increase the yield of protein produced in recombinant protein synthesis:

(a) Promoter induction
(b) Origin of replication
(c) Translation initiation
(d) Translation and transcription inhibition.


                                                                                                   A: a. Promoter...

Q: All of the following present with disorders of protein misfolding except:

(a) Alzheimer's disease
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Cystic fibrosis
(d) Creutzfeldt- Jakob disease.



                                                                                                   A: b. Tuberculosis

Q: All of the following are associated with increased risk of atherosclerotic plaque formation except:

(a) Apo E mutation
(b) Oxidized LDL
(c) Increased homocysteine.
(d) Increased alpha2 macroglobulin.


                                                                                                   A: d. Increased alph..

Q: Which of the following statements about HDL is false:

(a) HDL increases oxidation of LDL.
(b) HDL reduces foam cell production by LDL.
(c) HDL is the best predictor of CAD.
(d) HDL helps to clear lipids from atheromas.



                                                                                                   A: a. HDL increa...

Q: Which of the following is a cardioprotective fatty acid:

(a) Palmitic acid
(b) Stearic acid
(c) Oleic acid
(d) Omega-3-fatty acids.



                                                                                                   A: d. Omega....

Q: Transfer of an amino group from an aminoacid to an alpha keto acid is done by:

(a) Transaminases
(b) Oxidases
(c) Transketolases
(d) Deaminases.



                                                                                                   A: a. Transaminases

Q: Urea cycle occurs in:

(a) Liver
(b) Gastrointestinal tract
(c) Spleen
(d) Kidney.



                                                                                                   A: a. Liver.

Q: Which of the following statement is true:

(a) Sulfonamides inhibit folate reductase irreversibly.
(b) Ethanol inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase when used in methanol poisoning.
(c) Acetylcholinesterase inhibition by malathion can be reversed by increasing levels of Acetylcholine.
(d) Fluoroacetate competitively inhibits aconitase.


                                                                                                   A: d. Fluoro....

Q: Thiamine deficiency causes decreased energy production because:

(a) It is required for process of transamination.
(b) It is a co-factor for oxidative reduction.
(c) It is a co-enzyme for transketolase in pentose phosphate pathway.
(d) It is a co-enzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase and alpha- ketoglutarate dehyrogenase in TCA.


                                                                                                   A: d. It is a .....

Q: Vitamin K is involved in post translation modification of:

(a) Glutamate
(b) Aspartate
(c) Lysine
(d) Proline.



                                                                                                   A: a. Glutamate

Q: All of the following about phagocytosis are true except:

(a) Amoeba and other unicellular protozoa make their living out of this.
(b) Used to ingest particles < 0.5 micron in size.
(c) Used to ingest particles > 0.5 microns in size.
(d) Digestion occurs within phagolysosomes.



                                                                                                   A: b. Used to ...<0.5

Q: BMR depends on:

(a) Lean body mass
(b) Body mass index
(c) Obesity
(d) Body surface area.



                                                                                                   A: a. Lean body...

Q: The nucleus involved in Papez circuit is:

(a) Pulvinar
(b) Intralaminar
(c) VPL nucleus
(d) Anterior nucleus of thalamus.



                                                                                                   A: d. Anterior....

Q: Which of the following is not seen in humans:

(a) Estrous cycle
(b) Menstrual cycle.
(c) Endometrial cycle.
(d) Ovarian cycle.



                                                                                                   A: a. Estrous...

Q: Orthopnea in heart failure develops due to:

(a) Reservoir function of pulmonary veins.
(b) Reservoir function of leg veins.
(c) Reservoir function of pulmonary arteries.
(d) Reservoir function of leg arteries.



                                                                                                   A: b. leg veins..

Q: A mountaineer is observed to have a hematocrit of 70%. Which of the following represents the most likely cause:

(a) Polycythemia with increased red cell mass.
(b) Relative polycythemia due to dehydration.
(c) Polycythemia due to hemoconcentration.
(d) Polycythemia with high altitude pulmonary edema.      


                                                                                            A: a. Polycythemia...

Q: A man connected to a body plethysmograph for estimation of FRC inspires against a closed glottis. Which of the following statements is true:

(a) The pressure in both the lungs and box increases.
(b) The pressure in both the lungs and box decreases.
(c) The pressure in the lungs decreases but that in the box increases.
(d) The pressure in the lungs increases but that in the box decreases.


                                                                                                   A:c.lung de.., box in..

Q: Pulmonary compliance is decreased in all of the following conditions, except:

(a) Pulmonary congestion
(b) COPD
(c) Decreased surfactant
(d) Pulmonary fibrosis.



                                                                                                   A: b. COPD

Q: Small airways have laminar air flow because:

(a) Reynold's number > 2000
(b) Very small diameter
(c) Extremely low velocity
(d) Low cross sectional area.



                                                                                                   A: c. Extremely...

Q: Maximum water reabsorption in gastrointestinal tract occurs in:

(a) Stomach
(b) Jejunum
(c) Ileum
(d) Colon.



                                                                                                   A: b. Jejunum.

Q: The primary action of nitric oxide in the gastrointestinal tract is:

(a) Vasodilation
(b) Vasoconstriction
(c) GI smooth muscle relaxation.
(d) GI slow smooth muscle contraction.



                                                                                                   A:c. GI smooth....

Q: Which of the following does not carry deoxygenated blood in fetal circulation:

(a) Pulmonary artery.
(b) Umbilical artery.
(c) Umbilical vein
(d) Pulmonary vein.



                                                                                                   A: c. Umbilical...

Q: Muscular component of dorsal aorta develops from:

(a) Axial mesoderm
(b) Paraxial mesoderm
(c) Intermediate mesoderm
(d) Lateral plate mesoderm.



                                                                                                   A: b. Paraxial....

Q: Diaphragm develops from all of the following structures except:

(a) Septum transversum
(b) Pleuroperitoneal membranes
(c) Cervical myotomes
(d) Dorsal mesocardium.



                                                                                                   A: d. Dorsal....

Q: Which of the following best describes the type of joint seen in the growth plate:

(a) Fibrous
(b) Primary cartilagenous
(c) Secondary cartilagenous
(d) Plane joint.



                                                                                                   A: b. Primary...

Q: All of the following are pneumatic bones except:

(a) Frontal
(b) Ethmoid
(c) Mandible
(d) Maxilla.



                                                                                                   A: c. Mandible

Q: Which of the following passes through foramen magnum:

(a) Vertebral artery.
(b) Sympathetic chain
(c) XIth cranial nerve
(d) Internal carotid artery.



                                                                                                   A: a. Vertebral a.

Q: All of the following form floor of third ventricle except:

(a) Infundibulum
(b) Occulomotor nerve
(c) Mammillary body
(d) Optic chiasma.



                                                                                                   A: b. Occulo....

Q: Which of the following is not supplied by anterior division of mandibular nerve:

(a) Temporalis
(b) Masseter
(c) Lateral pterygoid
(d) Medial pterygoid.



                                                                                                   A: d. Medial ptery...

Q: The bifurcation of common carotid occurs at:

(a) Upper border of cricoid cartilage.
(b) Upper border of thyroid cartilage.
(c) Level of hyoid bone.
(d) Upper border of cricothyroid membrane.



                                                                                                   A: b. Upper border..

Q: Which of the following is not a component of hypogastric sheath:

(a) Broad ligament
(b) Uterosacral ligament
(c) Transverse cervical ligament.
(d) Lateral ligament of bladder.



                                                                                                   A: a. Broad...

Q: Urethral crest is situated in:

(a) Prostatic urethra
(b) Membranous urethra
(c) Penile urethra
(d) Bulbar urethra.



                                                                                                   A: a. Prostatic...

Q: All the following form posterior relations of head of pancreas, except:

(a) Common bile duct.
(b) First part of duodenum.
(c) Aorta.
(d) Inferior venacava.



                                                                                                   A: b. First part....

Q: Which among the following is a branch of the trunk of brachial plexus:

(a) Suprascapular n.
(b) Long thoracic n.
(c) Dorsal scapular n.
(d) Nerve to subclavius.



                                                                                                   A: a. Suprascapular..

Q: All of the following statements about injury to common peroneal nerve are true, except:

(a) Commonly results from injury to neck of fibula.
(b) Loss of sensation over sole of foot.
(c) Loss of toe dorsiflexion.
(d) Foot drop.


                                                                                                   A: b. Loss of sen....

Q: Which of the following movements will not be affected by involvement of the L5 nerve root:

(a) Thigh adduction
(b) Knee flexion
(c) Knee extension
(d) Toe extension.


                                                                                                   A: a. Thigh add....