pgaiims-Fort-Worth-Star-Telegram

Q: All are true regarding disinfectants except:

(a) Glutraldehyde is sporicidal
(b) Hypochlorites are virucidal
(c) Ethylene oxide is intermediate disinfectant
(d) Phenol usually requires organic matter to act.



                                                                                                   A: d. Phenol .....

Q: Acellular petrussis vaccine contains:

(a) Pertactin, flagillary hemagglutinin, cytotoxin, endotoxin.
(b) Pertactin, flagillary hemagglutinin, fimbriae, endotoxin.
(c) Pertactin, cytotoxin, fimbriae, pertussis toxin
(d) Flagillary hemagglutinin, pertusis toxin , fimbriae.



                                                                                                   A: d. Flagillary....

Q: Which of the following statement is true about bacteriophage:

(a) It is a bacterium
(b) It helps in transformation
(c) It imparts toxigenicity to bacteria
(d) It transfers only chromosomal gene



                                                                                                   A: c. It impairs....

Q: Lyme's disease all are true except:

(a) Borellia burgdroferi replicates locally and invades locally
(b) Infection progresses inspite of good humoral immunity
(c) Polymorphonuclear leucocytosis in CSF suggest meningeal involvement
(d) IgA intrathecally confirms meningitis.



                                                                                                   A: c. Polymo......

Q: Streptococcus- all are true except:

(a) Streptodornase cleaves DNA
(b) Streptolysin O is active in reduced state
(c) Streptokinase is produced from serotype A,C,K
(d) Pyrogenic toxn A is plasmid mediated.



                                                                                           A: d. Pyrogenic.....

Q: Lambda phage- which of the following is true:

(a) It causes mad cow disease
(b) Lysogenic to lytic conversion cannot occur
(c) Lysogenic form incorporates host DNA and remain dormant.
(d) Lytic phase incorporates in host DNA, proliferate and causes rupture of cell.



                                                                                                   A: c. Lysogenic ...

Q: All are true about non-typhoid salmonella except:

(a) Poultry is source
(b) Can cause invasive disease in neonates
(c) Blood culture is more sensitive than stool culture in gastroenteritis in adults.
(d) Resistance to fluoroquinolone has emerged.



                                                                                                   A: c. Blood culture...

Q: All are true about brucella except:

(a) B.abortus is capnophilic
(b) Transmission by aerosol can occur occasionally
(c) Pasturisation destroys it
(d) 2ME is used to detect IgA.



                                                                                                   A: d. 2ME is ....

Q: Muscle rigidity due to opioids is because of their effect on:

(a) mu
(b) kappa
(c) sigma
(d) delta



                                                                                                   A: mu

Q: Which of the following is not a side effect of naloxone:

(a) Seizure
(b) Hypertension
(c) Pulmonary edema
(d) Ventricular dysrhythmia



                                                                                                   A: a. Seizure

Q: Use of tamoxifen for breast cancer can cause all of the following except:

(a) Thromboembolism
(b) Endometrial carcinoma
(c) Carcinoma in contralateral breast
(d) Cataract.



                                                                                                   A: c. Ca in contra...

Q: Regarding ACE inhibitor, which of the following is true:

(a) Inhibits conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
(b) t-half of enalapril is more than lisinopril
(c) Omission of prior diuretic dose decreases the risk of postural hypotension
(d) It is effective only with left ventricular systolic dysfunction.



                                                                                                   A: c. Omission of...

Q: Bleomycin toxicity is characterized by destruction of:

(a) Endothelial cells
(b) Type I pneumocytes
(c) Type II pneumocytes
(d) Alveolar macrophages



                                                                                                   A: b. Type I pneumo

Q: Which of the following drugs is used in sickle cell anemia:

(a) Hydroxyurea
(b) Carmustine
(c) Paclitaxel
(d) Bleomycin



                                                                                                   A: a. Hydroxyurea

Q: Topical mitomycin C is used in the treatment of:

(a) Basal skull Ca
(b) Tracheal stenosis
(c) Skull base osteomyelitis
(d) Angiofibroma



                                                                                                   A: b. Tracheal....

Q: All the following are true about Diazoxide except:

(a) K+ channel opener
(b) Can be used as antihypertensive
(c) Causes severe hypoglycemia
(d) Used in insulinoma



                                                                                                   A: c. Causes severe...

Q: All are true about ESBL except:

(a) Sensitive to carbapenems
(b) Ambler classification is based on molecular structure
(c) Classification is based on third generation cephalosporin sensitivity
(d) 3rd and 4th gen. cephalosporin sensitivity testing is must to confirm the ESBL.



                                                                                                   A: d. 3rd & 4th gen..

Q: Octreotide is used in all except:

(a) Insulinoma
(b) Glucagonoma
(c) Glioma
(d) Carcinoids




                                                                                                   A: c. Glioma

Q: Which does not cause megaloblastic anemia?

(a) Phenytoin
(b) Chloroquine
(c) Sulfasalazine
(d) Alcohol



                                                                                                   A: b. Chloroquine

Q: Which of the following does not worsen angina:

(a) Sumatriptan
(b) Oxyfedrine
(c) Dipyridamole
(d) Thyroxine



                                                                                                   A: b. Oxyfedrine

Q: All are true about Ifosfamide except:

(a) It is nitrogen mustard
(b) Metabolised by CYP3A4 to form active metabolite
(c) Chloroacetaldehyde is active form
(d) Less neurotoxic than cyclophosphamide.



                                                                                                   A: d. Less.....

Q: Which of the following is not an indication of cotrimoxazole:

(a) Lower UTI
(b) Prostatitis
(c) Chancroid
(d) Typhoid



                                                                                                   A: c. Chancroid

Q: Methotrexate is used in all except:

(a) Sickle cell anemia
(b) Psoriasis
(c) Rheumatoid arthritis
(d) Ankylosing spondylitis



                                                                                                   A: a. Sickle...

Q: Which does not cause hypoglycemia:

(a) Insulin
(b) Glimepiride
(c) Natglinide
(d) Acarbose



                                                                                                   A: d. Acarbose

Q: All are true about Exenatide except:

(a) Decreases glucagon secretion
(b) It is GLP1 analogue
(c) Used in type I DM
(d) Given subcutaneously



                                                                                                   A: c. Used in....

Q: A patient develops hypoglycemia. He was on insulin and acarbose. For treatment of above, what is to be given:

(a) Glucose
(b) Maltose
(c) Sucrose
(d) Starch


                                                                                                   A: a. Glucose

Q: False about pioglitzone:

(a) It is a PPAR-alpha agonist.
(b) It is metabolized in liver.
(c) Not given in case of diastolic dysfunction.
(d) It acts on insulin gene and even in absence of insulin, helps in metabolism of carbohydrate.


                                                                                                    A: (d) It acts on....

Q: Which of the following statement is true about Net Protein Utilization:

(a) It is the ratio of energy from protein to total energy in diet.
(b) It is the ratio of total nitrogen retained by total nitrogen intake multiplied by 100.
(c) It is the amount of one aminoacid per gram of a protein divided by amount of same amino acid per gram of egg protein
(d) If the NPU is high, the amount of protein requirement in diet is high.


 

                                                                         A: b. It is the ratio of total nitrogen....

Q: In India, most common cause of maternal mortality is:

(a) Anemia
(b) Hemorrhage
(c) Abortion
(d) Obstructed labour



                                                                                                   A: b. Hemorrhage

Q: All of the following about purification of water are true except:

(a) Presence of clostridial spores indicate recent contamination of water
(b) Coliforms must not be detectable in any 100ml sample of water
(c) Sodium thiosulphate is used to neutralize chlorine
(d) Coliforms maybe detected by multiple tube and indole production methods.



                                                                                                   A: a. Presence of.....

Q: Incidence can be calculated by:

(a) Prospective study
(b) Retrospective study
(c) Case control study
(d) Cross sectional study.



                                                                                                   A: a. Prospective.....

Q: About Randomized control trial, all are true except:

(a) Baseline characteristics are comparable
(b) Bias can be eliminated by double blinding
(c) Sample size depends on the type of study
(d) Dropouts are excluded from the study.



                                                                                                   A: d. Dropouts.....

Q: Not true about breast milk is:

(a) Maximum output is seen at 12 months
(b) Coefficient of iron absorption is 70%
(c) Calcium utilization from breast milk is more than cow's milk
(d) Breast milk is reference protein.



                                                                                                   A: a. Max output....

Q: True about cluster sampling are all except:

(a) Sample size is same as that of simple random sampling
(b) It is a two stage sampling
(c) It is cheaper than other methods of sampling
(d) It has the disadvantage of higher sampling error.



                                                                                                   A: a. Sample size....

Q: Fish is deficient in which of the following nutrients:

(a) Iodine
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Iron
(d) Phosphorus.



                                                                                                   A: a. Iodine

Q: Which of the following statement is true about BCG vaccination:

a. Distilled water is used as diluent for BCG vaccine
b. The site for injection should be cleaned thoroughly with spirit
c. Mantoux test becomes positive after 48 hours of vaccination
d. WHO recommends Danish 1331 strain for vaccine production.



                                                                                             A: d. WHO reco......

Q: Incineration is not done for:

 a. Cytotoxic drugs
 b. Cotton contaminated with blood
 c. Waste sharps
 d. Human tissue                             



                                                                     A: c. Waste sharps.

Q: The following about DDT is false:

 a. Pyrethrum has synergistic action
 b. It is a contact poison
 c. Immediately kills the pray
 d. Residual effect lasts for 18 months.



                                                                                                   A: c. Immediately...

Q: Following are larval control measures except :

 a. DDT.
 b. Paris green
 c. Gambusia
 d. Intermittent irrigation



                                                                                                       A: a. DDT

Q: Which of the following about vaccines is false :

  a. Thiomersal is preservative in DPT vaccine.
  b. Magnesium chloride is stabilizer used in OPV.
  c. Kanamycin is preservative in measles.
  d. Neomycin is preservative in BCG vaccine.



                                                                                                  A: d. Neomycin....

Q: Late expanding stage of population in India is due to   :

 a. Birth rate stationary, death rate continues to fall.
 b. Death rate declines more than birth rate.
 c. Birth rate declines, death rate same.
 d. Birth rate is less than death rate.     



                                                                                              A: b. Death rate .....

Q: A 30 yrs old female has sputum positive TB. Her child is 3 years old. What is the recommended chemoprophylaxis:

a. INH 3mg/kg for 3months.
b. INH 5mg/kg for 3months.
c. INH 3mg/kg for 6months.
d. INH 5mg/kg for 6months.


                                                                                                                 A: d. 5 for 6

Q. According to MCI act, medical education granted by Indian universities come under:

a. Schedule I of MCI Act.
b. Schedule II of MCI Act.
c. Part I of schedule III.
d. Part II of schedule III.            


                                                                                         Ans: Schedule I of MCI act

Q. Condition promoting adipocere formation:  

a. Dry and hot.
b. Hot and humid.
c. Dry and optimum.
d. Cold and moist.



                                                                            Ans: b. Hot and humid

Q. In civil negligence, onus of proof lies on:  

a. Judicial first degree magistrate.
b. Police not below the level of sub inspector.
c. Doctor.
d. Patient.



                                                                            Ans: d. Patient.

Q. A middle aged man comes to OPD with paraesthesia of hands and feet, hyperkeratosis of palms, rain drop pigmentation and transverse lines on nails. Most likely person is having:  

a. Arsenic posoning .
b. Lead poisoning.
c. Mercury poisoning.
d. Cadmium poisoning.  

 
                                                                                         Ans: a. Arsenic poisoning.

Q. During autopsy, if spinal cord is to be examined what is the most commonly used approach:   

a. Anterior.
b. Posterior.
c. Lateral.
d. Anterolateral.


                                                                            Ans: b. Posterior.

Q. True about sickle cell disease are all except:

a. Single nucleotide change results in change of glutamine to valine.
b. Sticky patch is generated as a result of replacement of a non-polar residue with a polar residue.
c. HbS confers resistance against malaria in heterozygotes.
d. RFLP results from a single base change.



                                                                            Ans: b. Sticky patch is gen.....

Q. After digestion by restriction endonucleases, DNA strands can be joined again by:  

a.DNA polymerase
b.DNA ligase
c.DNA topoisomerase
d.DNA gyrase


                                                                          Answer: d. DNA gyrase

Q. Acetyl CoA can be converted directly to all except:

a. Glucose
b. Fatty acids
c. Cholesterol
d. Ketone bodies.



                                                                          Answer: a. Glucose

Q. Triplex DNA is due to

 a. Hoogsteen pairing
 b. Palindromic sequences
 c. Large no. of guanosine repeats
 d. Polypyramidine tracts      



                                                                   Answer: a. Hoogsteen pairing

Q. Histone acetylation causes:

 a. Increased heterochromatin formation.
 b. Increased euchromatin formation.
 c. Methylation of cystine.
 d. DNA replication.



                                                                          Answer: b. Increased euchromatin.

Q. Movement of protein from nucleus to cytoplasm can be seen by:

 a. FISH
 b. FRAP
 c. Confocal microscopy
 d. Electron microscopy



                                                                          Answer: b. FRAP

Q. Gene duplication plays an important role in the evolution of:

 a. mRNA
 b. rRNA
 c. tRNA
 d. hn RNA




                                                                                      Answer: a. mRNA

Q. Among the following, all are hydrophilic hormones that act on cytosolic receptors except one which is a lipophilic hormone that acts on nuclear receptor:

 a. Thyroxine
 b. Epinephrine
 c. GH
 d. ACTH



                                          Answer: a. Thyroxine

Q. Apo B48 & Apo B100 is synthesized from the same mRNA, the difference between them is due to:

 a. RNA splicing
 b. Allelic exclusion
 c. Deamination of cytidine to uridine
 d. Upstream repression



                                          Answer: c. Deamination of cytidine to uridine

Q. Following modification occurs in Gs subunit which leads to watery diarrhea in cholera:

 a. ADP ribosylation
 b. ATP-ADP transfer
 c. Phosphorylation
 d. Dephosphorylation



                                          Answer: a. ADP ribosylation

Q. CAP in LAC operon is

 a. Positive regulator
 b. Negative regulator
 c. Attenuation
 d. Constitutive expression.



                                          Answer: a. Positive regulator

Q. Which of the following is not degraded by colonic flora?

 a. Pectin
 b. Lignin
 c. Starch
 d. Glucose

                                        

Answer: b. Lignin

Q. Nitrogen narcosis is due to :

a. Nitrogen inhibits dismutase enzyme.
b. Increase production of nitrous oxide.
c. Increased solubility of nitrogen in nerve cell membrane
d. Decrease in oxygen free radicals.

                                          Answer: c. Increased solubility of nitrogen in nerve cell membrane.

Q. Which of the following statement is true?

  a. Fluid coming from descending limb of loop of Henle is hypotonic.
  b. Descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to solutes.
  c. If clearance of a substance is greater than GFR, then tubular secretion must be present.
  d. Clearance of a substance is always more than GFR if there is tubular secretion.                                        



Answer:
c. If clearance of a substance is greater than GFR, then tubular secretion must be present.

Q. CSF pressure is mainly regulated by:

  a. Rate of CSF formation.
  b. Rate of CSF absorption.
  c. Cerebral blood flow.
  d. Venous pressure.



                                          Answer: b. Rate of CSF absorption.

Q. Maximum post prandial motility is seen in:

  a. Ascending colon.
  b. Transverse colon.
  c.  Descending colon.
  d. Sigmoid colon.



  Answer:
c. Descending colon

Q. Angiotensin II causes all of the following except:
  a. Stimulation of thirst.
  b. Aldosterone secretion.
  c. Increased ADH secretion.
  d. Vasodilation.


  Answer:
d. Vasodilation

Q. True regarding myocardial Oxygen demand:
  a. Inversely related to heart rate.
  b. Has constant relation to external cardiac work.
  c. Directly proportional to the duration of systole.
  d. Is negligible at rest.


  Answer:
b. Has constant relation to external cardiac work.

Q. The primary direct stimulus for excitation of central chemoreceptors regulating ventilation is:

a.Increased H+          
b.Increased CO2          
c.Increased O2             
d.Decreased CO2


    Answer:
a. Increased H+

Q. Energy expenditure in resting state depends on:

a. Lean body mass.
b. Adipose tissue.       
c. Resting heart rate.          
d. Exercise.                                      


Answer:
a. Lean body mass.

Vasomotor centre of medulla is associated with:

a. Acts with the cardiovagal centre to maintain BP.
b. Independent of corticohypothalamic inputs
c. Influenced by baroreceptors, not chemoreceptors
d. Essentially silent in sleep.


Answer:
a. Acts with cardiovagal centre to maintain BP.

True about shunt vessels:

a. Evenly distributed throughout the skin.
b. Role in nutrition
c. Play a role in thermoregulation
d. No autonomic nerve regulation

Answer:
c. Play a role in thermoregulation.

True regarding animals that are chronically exposed to cold?
a. Increased sympathetic stimulation
b. Increased vagal action.
c. Increased insulin levels in blood
d. Decreased blood supply to adipose tissue.


Answer:

Axillary abscess is safely drained by which approach?

a. Medial

b. Posterior

c. Lateral.

d. Floor.

Answer: d. Floor.

Sternocleidomastoid is supplied by all of the following arteries except:

a. Occipital

b. Posterior auricular.

c. Thyrocervical trunk.

d. Superior thyroid.




Upper third-  Occipital artery.

Middle third -  Superior thyroid a.

Lower third - Suprascapular a.


Answer: b. Posterior auricular.

Boundary of triangle of auscultation is not formed by:

a. Serratus anterior.

b. Scapula.

c. Trapezius.

d. Lattisimus dorsi.






Answer: a. Serratus anterior

All of the following muscles retract the scapula except:

a. Trapezius.

b. Rhomboid major.

c. Rhomboid minor.

d. Levator scapulae.





Answer: d. Levator scapulae.

Spleen projects into the following space of peritoneal cavity:

a. Paracolic gutter.

b. Infracolic compartment.

c. Left subhepatic space.

d. Greater sac.



Answer: d. Greater sac.

On contrast radiography, which among the following is false?

a. Ileum is featureless.

b. Colon has haustrations.

c. Jejunum is feathery.

d. Distal part of duodenum has a cap.




Duodenography showing
A--- Duodenal cap ( 1st part )
B--- Ascending ( 2nd part)
C--- Horizontal ( 3rd part )
D--- Ascending ( 4th part )



Answer: d. Distal part of duodenum has a cap

Neurovascular bundle in axilla is surrounded by sheath derived from :

a. Prevertebral fascia.

b. Pretracheal fascia.

c. Clavipectoral fascia.

d. Axillary sheath.


Answer: a. Prevertebral fascia

Root of mesentery is crossed by,

a. Horizontal part of duodenum.

b. Left gonadal vessels.

c. Left ureter.

d. Superior mesenteric artery.




Structures crossed by root of mesentery:

1. Horizontal (3rd) and Ascending (4th) part of duodenum.
2. Abdominal aorta.
3. IVC.
4. Right Ureter.
5. Right Psoas major.
6. Right gonadal vessels.

MNEMONIC: HAI Red PUG



Answer: a. Horizontal part of duodenum

Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by all except:

a. Amyloidosis.

b. Hypothyroidism.

c. Addisson's disease.

d. Diabetes mellitus.




Answer: c. Addison's disease.

Sphincter of Oddi consists of how many sphincters :

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5




Sphincter of Oddi consists of:

1. Superior choledochal sphincter.
2. Inferior choledochal sphincter.
3. Pancreatic sphincter.
4. Sphincter ampullae.


Answer: c. 4 sphincters

Trochlear Nerve- all are true except:

a. Longest intracranial course.

b. Arises from dorsum of brainstem.

c. Supply ipsilateral superior oblique muscle.

d. Enters orbit through sup. orbital fissure, outside annulus of Zinn.

See the crossing over of the nerves on the dorsum to opposite sides.

See trochlear lying outside annulus of Zinn

Answer: c. Supplies ipsilateral superior oblique muscle.

3. The weight of the upper limb is transmitted to axial skeleton by all except:

a. Coraco-acromial ligament.

b. Claviculo-clavicular ligament.

c. Costo-clavicular ligament.

d. Acromio-clavicular ligament.





The answer is obvious from the above diagram, as coraco-acromial is between the two parts of the scapula itself.

Coraco-clavicular is the major ligament transmitting upper limb weight to the clavicle.




STERNO-CLAVICULAR JOINT:



Answer: c. Coraco-acromial ligament.

2. Vertical crest in fundus of the internal auditory canal is known as :

a. Bill's bar.

b. Ponticulus.

c. Cog.

d. Falciform crest.

The internal auditory canal is the bony channel in the posterior fossa, that houses the facial (VII), cochlear and vestibular (VIII) nerves. At the fundus it is split horizontally by the falciform or transverse crest. The superior portion of the canal above the transverse crest is again split into anterior and posterior parts by vertical crest or Bill's bar.

It is used as a surgical landmark for facial nerve identification during translabyrinthine surgery.



Contents of the Internal Auditory Canal


7.Up = Cranial nerve 7 ("7-up, coke down")
BB = The Bill bar
Coke = Cochlear nerve ("7-up, coke down")
IVN = Inferior vestibular nerve
SVN = Superior vestibular nerve
TC = Transverse crest

Answer: a. Bill's bar.

1. In a subclavian artery block at outer border of first rib, all of the following arteries help in maintaining the circulation to upper limb except:

a. Subscapular artery.

b. Superior thoracic artery.

c. Thyrocervical trunk.

d. Suprascapular artery.

Scapular anastomosis between

1st part of Subclavian   and 3rd part of Axillary arteries


Axillary artery -divided by pectoralis minor into 3 parts

Branches:

1st part- one----->     Superior Thoracic artery

2nd part- two ----->  Thoraco-acromial artery
                                  Lateral thoracic artery

3rd part- three -----> Subscapular artery.
                                  Anterior circumflex humeral a.
                                  Posterior circumflex humeral a.

Mnemonic: She Tastes Like Sweet Apple Pie.

Subclavian Artery- divided by scalenus anterior into 3 parts:

Branches:

1st part: ---> Vertebral artery
                      Internal Thoracic
                      Thyrocervical trunk---->3 branches --Inferior thyroid,
                                                                                 Transverse (sup) cervical,
                                                                                 Suprascapular   


2nd part----> Costocervical trunk---->2 br-- Superior intercostal a.
                                                                       Deep cervical a.


3rd part-----> No branch ( occ dorsal scapular a. or suprascapular)


Mnemonic: VITamin C & D



Very Tired Individuals Sip Strong Coffee Served Daily:

Vertebral artery
Thyrocervical trunk
---Inferior thyroid
---Superficial cervical
---Suprascapular
Costocervical
---Superior intercostal
---Deep cervical




                                                                                     
                   

Axillary- branches

Answer: b. Superior thoracic artery