M11 Su153- Renal cell Ca

Q: Which of the following is not associated with RCC:

(a) Polycythemia
(b) Amyloidosis
(c) Cushing's syndrome
(d) Hypertension.



                                                                                                   A: c. Cushing's..

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M11 Su152- GB Ca

Q: Survival in unresectable GB Ca is:

(a) 4-6 months
(b) 8-10 months
(c) 1 year
(d) 12-24 months.



                                                                                                   A: a. 4-6 months

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M11 Su151- MESS

Q: Mangled Extremity Severity Score includes all except:

(a) Shock
(b) Ischemia
(c) Neurogenic injury
(d) Energy of injury.



                                                                                                   A: c. Neurogenic...

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M11 Su150- Lap cholecystectomy

Q: The technique of lap cholecystectomy was first described by:

(a) Erich Muhe
(b) Philip Moore
(c) Kurt Semm
(d) Eddie reddick



                                                                                                   A: a. Erich Muhe

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M11 Su149- Mucinous cystadenoma pancreas

Q: Not true about mucinous cystadenoma pancreas:

(a) Microcystic adenoma
(b) Lined by columnar epithelium
(c) Pre malignant
(d) Focus of ovarian stroma in it.



                                                                                                   A: a. Microcystic ...

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M11 Su148- Ca GB

Q: In a male after lap cholecystectomy, specimen shows Ca gall bladder stage T1a. Appropriate management is:

(a) Conservative and follow up
(b) Extended cholecystectomy
(c) Excision of all port sites
(d) Radiotherapy.


                                                                                                   A: c. Excision of...

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M11 Su147- GERD

Q: Best test to diagnose GERD and quantify acid output is:


(a) Esophagogram
(b) Endoscopy
(c) Manometry
(d) 24 hr pH monitor


                                                                                                   A: d. 24 hr pH

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M11 Su146- Cholangiocarcinoma

Q: Most common site of cholangiocarcinoma:

(a) Distal biliary duct
(b) Hilum
(c) Intrahepatic duct
(d) Multifocal.



                                                                                                   A: b. Hilum

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M11 Su145- Gleason score

Q: Gleason score, all are true except:

(a) Used for grading prostate cancer
(b) Scores range from 1- 10
(c) Higher score, poorer prognosis
(d) Helps in planning management.



                                                                                                   A: b. Scores....

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M11 Su144- Mesenteric ischemia

Q: Most common cause of acute mesenteric ischemia is:

(a) Arterial thrombosis
(b) Venous thrombosis
(c) Embolism
(d) Non- occlusive disease.



                                                                                                   A: c. Embolism

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M11 Su143- Medullary Ca Thyroid

Q: Treatment of medullary Ca thyroid:

(a) Surgery and radiotherapy
(b) Radiotherapy and chemo
(c) Surgery only
(d) Radioiodine ablation.



                                                                                                   A: Surgery only

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M11 Su142- Pancreatic Ca

Q: Which of the following statements about Pancreatic Ca is not true:

(a) Mutation in P 53 gene is associated in 75% of cases
(b) Hereditary pancreatitis significantly increases the risk
(c) Median survival in locally advanced ( stage III) disease is 3-6 months
(d) Five year survival after curative pancreatico-duodenectomy is 15-20%.



                                                                                                   A: c. Median....

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M11 Su141- GB polyp

Q: Risk factors for malignant change in an asymptomatic patient with a gall bladder polyp on USG include all except:

(a) Age > 60 yrs
(b) Rapid increase in polyp
(c) Size of polyp >5 mm
(d) Asso gall stones.


                                                                                                   A: c. Size of....

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M11 Su 140- Esophageal contraction

Q: Non progressive contraction of esophagus are:

(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Quartenary.



                                                                                                   A: d. Quartenary

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M11 Su139- Colorectal Ca

Q: Most important prognostic factor for colorectal ca:

(a) Site of lesion
(b) Tumor size and characteristics
(c) Age of patient
(d) Lymph node status.



                                                                                                   A: d. Lymph node

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M11 Su138- Pyloric stenosis

Q: A 3 week old patient presenting with vomiting and failure to thrive found to have pyloric stenosis. What should be the next step of management:

(a) Emergency pyloromyotomy
(b) Fluid resuscitation maybe delayed
(c) Correction of electrolyte disturbances
(d) Cardiopulmonary resuscitation.


                                                                                                   A: c. Correction....

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M11 Su137- GB- comet tail

Q: On abdominal USG, gall bladder shows diffuse wall thickening with hyperechoic nodules at neck and comet tail artefacts, the most likely diagnosis:

(a) Adenomyomatosis
(b) AdenoCa of GB
(c) Xanthogranulomatous cholecystitis
(d) Cholesterol crystals.


                                                                                                   A: a. Adenomyoma...

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M11 Su136- GIST

Q: Gold standard investigation for recurrent GIST:

(a) MRI
(b) MIBG
(c) USG
(d) PET CT



                                                                                                   A: d. PET CT

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M11 Su135- Colon lymphatics

Q: Which of the following is the terminal group of lymph node for colon:

(a) Paracolic
(b) Epicolic
(c) Preaortic
(d) Ileocolic



                                                                                                   A: c. Preaortic

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M11 Su134- Ca Colon

Q: Most protective against Ca Colon:

(a) High fibre diet
(b) Low fat diet
(c) Low selenium diet
(d) Low protein diet.



                                                                                                   A: a. High fibre

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M11 Su133- BRCA

Q: BRCA 1 gene is located on chromosome:

(a) 13
(b) 11
(c) 17
(d) 22



                                                                                                  A: c. 17

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M11 Su132- FAP

Q: Which of the following is not true about FAP:

(a) AR inheritance
(b) Screening done by sigmoidoscopy
(c) Polyps develop in late adulthood
(d) Epidermal cysts & osteomas may occur.



                                                                                                   A: a. AR inheritance

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M11 Su131- Insulinoma

Q: Gold standard test for insulinoma:

(a) 72 hr fasting test
(b) Plasma insulin levels
(c) C-peptide levels
(d) Low glucose levels < 130 mg/dl.



                                                                                                   A: a. 72 hr .....

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M11 Su130- Papillary Ca thyroid

Q: Which of the following would be the best treatment for a 2cm thyroid nodule in a 50yr old man with FNAC revealing it to be a papillary carcinoma:

(a) Hemithyroidectomy
(b) Total thyroidectomy with left sided modified neck dissection.
(c) Near total thyroidectomy with radiotherapy
(d) Hemithyroidectomy with modified neck dissection.


                                                                                                   A: b. Total.....

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M11 Su129- Carcinoma Colon

Q: All of the following genes maybe involved in Ca colon except:

(a) APC
(b) beta Catenin
(c) K ras
(d) Mismatch repair genes.



                                                                                                   A: b. Beta catenin

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M11 Su128- GIST

Q: A 50 yr old male with obstructive symptoms. Biopsy of stomach reveals GIST. Most appropriate marker:

(a) CD 34
(b) CD 117
(c) CD 30
(d) CD 10



                                                                                                   A: b. CD 117

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M11 Su127- Hashimoto's thyroiditis

Q: Hashimoto's thyroiditis- true are a/e:

(a) Follicular destruction
(b) Increase in lymphocytes
(c) Oncocytic metaplasia
(d) Orphan Annie eye nuclei.



                                                                                                   A: d. Orphan ....

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M11 Su126- Mesothelioma

Q: All are true regarding mesothelioma except:

(a) Bilaterally symmetrical
(b) Associated with asbestos exposure
(c) Histopathology shows biphasic pattern
(d) Occurs in late middle age.



                                                                                                   A: a. Bilaterally....

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M11 Su125- Goitre

Q: Which of the following is true:

(a) Colloid goitre mostly presents as hyperthyroidism
(b) Thyroid storm, the clinical features are primarily due to increased thyroxine
(c) Excess calcium intake can lead to hyperthyroidism
(d) Goitre more than 5 percent of population is endemic goitre.



                                                                                                   A: d. Goitre more....

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M11 Su124- Femoral artery

Q: Which is NOT true about femoral artery canulation:

(a) Common femoral artery is canulated
(b) Single wall puncture is indicated in those with normal coagulation profile
(c) Femoral artery is catheterised at medial third of femoral head
(d) Seldinger technique is used both for femoral artery and vein.



                                                                                                   A: b. Single wall....

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M11 Su123- Hepatic duct

Q: False about hepatic duct:

(a) Left hepatic duct formed in umbilical fissure
(b) Caudate lobe drains only left hepatic duct
(c) Right hepatic duct formed by V and VII segments
(d) Left hepatic duct crosses IV segment.



                                                                                                   A: b. Caudate lob...

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M11 Pe122- Ductal flow

Q: Ductus dependent blood flow is required for all of these congenital heart diseases except:

(a) Persistent truncus arteriosus
(b) Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
(c) Pulmonary stenosis
(d) TGA with intact septum.


                                                                                                   A: a. Persistent....

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M11 Pe121- Resp distress

Q: A child is admitted on 7th day of life with severe respiratory distress and shock. He was discharged 2 days back healthy. What could be the probable diagnosis:

(a) Large VSD
(b) Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
(c) Ebstein anomaly
(d) AP window defect.



                                                                                                   A: b. Hypoplastic...

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M11 Pe120- Lymphoma prognosis

Q: International prognostic index for lymphomas includes the following prognostic factors except:

(a) Stage of disease
(b) No: of extralymphatic sites involved
(c) LDH
(d) Hemoglobin and albumin


                                                                                                   A: d. Hemoglobin...

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M11 Pe119- Steroids in neonates

Q: A study under Australian collaborative trial on steroid use in neonates showed:

(a) No difference between placebo and steroid
(b) Steroids to children cause behavioural worsening
(c) Steroids to children cause reduction in head circumference
(d) Steroids to children cause neurosensitivity degradation.



                                                                                                   A: b. behavioural...

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M11 Pe118- Cystic fibrosis

Q: In a child with respiratory distress, failure to thrive, the sweat chloride levels were estimated to be 35 meq/l and 41 meq/l. What is the next best to do:

(a) Nasal transmembrane potential difference
(b) DNA analysis of F 508 mutation
(c) CT chest
(d) 72 hour fecal fat estimation.


                                                                                                   A: a. Nasal .....

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M11 Pe-117- Hypoplasia of limbs

Q: Hypoplasia of limbs and scarring is due to:

(a) Varicella
(b) Herpes simplex
(c) Rubella
(d) Toxoplasmosis.



                                                                                                   A: a. Varicella....

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M11 Pe116- Spiramycin

Q: A pregnant lady had no complaints but mild cervical lymphadenopathy in first trimester. She was prescribed spiramycin, but she was non-compliant. Baby was born with hydrocephalus and intracerebral calcification. Which of these is a likely cause:

(a) Rubella
(b) Toxoplasmosis
(c) CMV
(d) Herpes.


                                                                                                   A: Toxoplasmosis

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M11 Pe115- Respiratory distress

Q: A 3.5 male infant born at term after an uncomplicated pregnancy and delivery develops respiratory distress shortly after birth and requires mechanical ventilation. The chest radiograph reveals a normal cardiothymic silhouette but a diffuse ground glass appearance to the lung fields. Surfactant replacement fails to improve gas exchange. Over the first week of life, the hypoxemia worsens. Results of routine culture and echocardiographic findings are negative. A term female sibling died at 1 month of age with respiratory distress. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:

(a) TAPVC
(b) Meconium aspiration
(c) Neonatal pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
(d) Disseminated herpes simplex infection.



                                                                                                   A: c. Neonatal....

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M11 Pe114- CAH

Q: A 4 week old female child with normal genitalia presents to the emergency department with severe dehydration, hyperkalemia and hyponatremia. The measurement of blood levels of which of the following will be helpful:

(a) 17 hydroxy progesterone
(b) Renin
(c) Cortisol
(d) Aldosterone.


                                                                                                   A: d. Aldosterone

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M11 Pe113- Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis

Q: Which of the following is not a feature of juvenile idiopathic arthritis:

(a) Rheumatoid arthritis
(b) Spikes of high fever
(c) Uveitis
(d) Raynaud's phenomenon.



                                                                                                   A: d. Raynaud's...

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M11 Pe112- CAH

Q: A 5-yr old boy presents with pubic hair development. He is tall and has increased pigmentation of his genitalia and phallic enlargement. Blood pressure is 130/90 mm of Hg. Measurement of which of the following hormones would most likely be diagnostic:

(a) Increased 17 beta hydroxy progesterone
(b) Increased cortisol
(c) Increased aldosterone
(d) Increased 11 deoxy cortisol.


                                                                                                   A: d. Increased 11...

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M11 Pe110- Adrenal calcification

Q: A 2 month old infant is presented with failure to thrive, recurrent emesis, hepatosplenomegaly and adrenal insufficiency. Adrenal calcification is noted radiologically. The most likely diagnosis is:

(a) Adrenal hemorrhage
(b) Wolman's disease
(c) Pheochromocytoma
(d) Addison's disease.


                                                                                                   A: b. Wolman's ....

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M11 Pe111- Congenital Rubella

Q: All of the following statements about congenital rubella are true except:

(a) IgG persists for more than 6 months
(b) IgM antibody is present at birth
(c) Most common anomalies are hearing and birth defects
(d) Increased risk of congenital malformation if infection occurs after 16 weeks.



                                                                                                   A: d. Increased....

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M11 Pe109- Unresponsive infant

Q:  A previously healthy 6 week old female infant is found unresponsive in her crib. In the emergency department, she is noted to be well developed and well nourished with normal blood pressure and appearance of the genitalia, but with increased pigmentation of her skin. Blood glucose level is 30 mg/dl. The most likely diagnosis is:

(a) CAH due to 21 hydroxylase deficiency
(b) Familial glucocorticoid deficiency
(c) Cushing syndrome
(d) Insulinoma.


                                                                                                   A: b. Familial gluco..

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M11 Pe108- FSGS

Q: A child comes with steroid resistant nephrotic syndrome secondary to FSGS, not responsive to methylprednisolone. what next should be given:

(a) Oral cyclophosphamide
(b) Oral cyclosporine
(c) Oral mycophenolate
(d) IV cyclophosphamide.


                                                                                                   A: b. Oral cyclospo..

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M11 Pe107- Cystic fibrosis

Q: Which of the following about cystic fibrosis is not true:

(a) Autosomal recessive
(b) Abnormality in CFTR which leads to defective calcium transport
(c) Mutation in cystic fibrosis transport regulator
(d) Decrease in ENaC activity.



                                                                                                   A: b. Abnormality...

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M11 Pe106- Cystic fibrosis

Q: Most common organism associated with cystic fibrosis:

(a) Pseudomonas aeuroginosa
(b) Burkholderia cepacia
(c) Pleisomonas
(d) Aeromonas.



                                                                                                   A: a. Pseudo....

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M11 Pe105- Fanconi syndrome

Q: A male child with Fanconi syndrome with nephrocalcinosis has a variant of Dent's disease. All are true except:

(a) Hypercalciuria
(b) Proteinuria
(c) Similar presentation in father
(d) Rickets.


                                                                                                   A: c. Similar....

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M11 Me104- Palpitation

Q: A patient develops sudden palpitation with HR 150/min, regular. What could be the cause:

(a) PSVT
(b) Sinus tachycardia
(c) Ventricular tachycardia
(d) Atrial flutter with block.


                                                                                                   A: a. PSVT

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M11 Me103- Thalassemia

Q: Cause of alpha thalassemia:

(a) Deletion of alpha genes
(b) Deletion of beta genes
(c) Excess of alpha genes
(d) Single AA substitution in alpha chain.



                                                                                                   A: a. Deletion...

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M11 Me102- Congenital myopathy

Q: All are congenital myopathies except:

(a) Central core myopathy
(b) Centronuclear myopathy
(c) Z band myopathy
(d) Nemalin myopathy.



                                                                                                   A: c. Z band....

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M11 Me101- Horner's syndrome

Q: Horner's syndrome, all are true except:

(a) Miosis
(b) Anhydrosis
(c) Hyperchromatic iris
(d) Apparent exophthalmos.



                                                                                                   A: d. Apparent....

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M11 Me100- Thrombosis

Q: Thrombotic event is seen in all of the following except:

(a) PNH
(b) DIC
(c) ITP
(d) Heparin induced thrombocytopenia.



                                                                                                   A: c. ITP

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M11 Me98- Pulsatile liver

Q: Pulsatile liver and ascites is found in:

(a) TR
(b) PS
(c) MR
(d) MS



                                                                                                   A: a. TR

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M11 Me99- Hepatojugular reflex

Q: Positive hepatojugular reflex is found in all of the following conditions except:

(a) Tricuspid regurgitation
(b) Right heart failure
(c) Decreased after load
(d) Increased capillary bed pressure.



                                                                                                   A: c. Decreased....

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M11 Me97- Berry aneurysm

Q: Berry aneurysm- defect lies in:

(a) Degeneration of internal elastic lamina
(b) Deposition of mucoid material in media
(c) Degeneration of media.
(d) Disturbance in vessel wall.



                                                                                                   A: c. Degeneration...

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M11 Me96- Cyanosis+pallor

Q: A 14 yrs old girl on exposure to cold has pallor of extremities, followed by pain and cyanosis. In later ages of life, she is prone to develop:

(a) Systemic lupus erythematosis
(b) Scleroderma
(c) Rheumatoid arthritis
(d) Histiocytosis.


                                                                                                   A: b. Scleroderma.

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M11 Me95- Myopathy

Q: A 9yr old girl has difficulty in combing hairs and climbing upstairs since 6 months. She has Gower's sign positive and maculopapular rash over metacarpophalangeal joints. What should be the next appropriate investigation to be done:

(a) ESR
(b) RA factor
(c) Creatine kinase
(d) Electromyography.


                                                                                                   A: c. Creatine kinase

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M11 Me94- Hyperkalemia

Q: A girl presented with severe hyperkalemia and peaked T waves on ECG. Most rapid way to decrease serum potassium level:

(a) Calcium gluconate iv
(b) Oral resins
(c) Insulin + glucose
(d) Sodium bicarbonate.


                                                                                                   A: c. Insulin +.....

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M11 Me93- Atherosclerosis

Q: Which of the following about atherosclerosis is true:

(a) Intake of unsaturated fatty acid is associated with decreased risk.
(b) Thoracic aorta involvement is more severe than abdominal aorta
(c) Extent of lesion in veins is same as that in arteries.
(d) Hypercholesterolemia does not always increase the risk of atherosclerosis per se.


                                                                                                   A: a. Intake of...

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M11 Me92- Reperfusion

Q: Reperfusion is useful for:

(a) Stunned myocardium
(b) Hibernating myocardium
(c) Non ischemic viable myocardium
(d) Mixed ischaemic viable myocardium



                                                                                                   A: b. Hibernating...

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M11 Pa91- Epidermolysis bullosa

Q: In congenital dystrophic variety of epidermolysis bullosa, mutation is seen in the gene coding for:

(a) Laminin 4
(b) Collagen type 7
(c) Alpha 6 integrin
(d) Keratin 14.


                                                                                                   A: b. Collagen....

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M11 Pa90- Cardiac polyp

Q: Cardiac polyp means:

(a) Acute infarct
(b) Cardiac aneurysm
(c) Benign tumour
(d) Fibrinous clot.



                                                                                                   A: d. Fibrinous...

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M11 Pa89- CD4

Q: CD4 is not important for which of the following:

(a) Antibody production
(b) Cytotoxicity of T cells
(c) Memory B cells
(d) Opsonisation.



                                                                                                   A: b. Cyto....

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M11 Pa88- TB

Q: Infraclavicular lesion of tuberculosis is known as:

(a) Ghon's focus
(b) Puhl's focus
(c) Assman's focus
(d) Simmon's focus.



                                                                                                   A: c. Assman's...

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M11 Pa87- Proteinuria

Q: A 7 year old girl is brought with complaints of generalized swelling of body. Urinary examination reveals grade 3 proteinuria and presence of hyaline and fatty casts. She has no history of hematuria. Which of the following statements about her condition is true:

(a) No IgG deposits or C3 deposition on renal biopsy
(b) Her C3 levels will be low
(c) IgA nephropathy is the likely diagnosis
(d) Alport's syndrome is the likely diagnosis.


                                                                                                   A: a. No IgG depo....

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M11 Pa86- Myocardial Infarction

Q: A 45 years male died four days after MI and autopsy showed transmural coagulative necrosis. Which of the following microscopic features will be seen on further examination:

(a) Fibroblasts and collagen
(b) Granulation tissue
(c) Neutrophilic infiltration
(d) Granulomatous inflammation.


                                                                                                   A: c. Neutro....

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M11 Pa85- Benign hypertension

Q: Common histological finding in benign hypertension:

(a) Proliferative endarteritis
(b) Necrotizing arteriolitis
(c) Hyaline arteriosclerosis
(d) Cystic medial necrosis



                                                                                                   A: c. Hyaline....

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M11 Mi83- Disinfectants

Q: All are true regarding disinfectants except:

(a) Glutraldehyde is sporicidal
(b) Hypochlorites are virucidal
(c) Ethylene oxide is intermediate disinfectant
(d) Phenol usually requires organic matter to act.



                                                                                                   A: d. Phenol .....

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M11 Mi84- Acellular petrussis

Q: Acellular petrussis vaccine contains:

(a) Pertactin, flagillary hemagglutinin, cytotoxin, endotoxin.
(b) Pertactin, flagillary hemagglutinin, fimbriae, endotoxin.
(c) Pertactin, cytotoxin, fimbriae, pertussis toxin
(d) Flagillary hemagglutinin, pertusis toxin , fimbriae.



                                                                                                   A: d. Flagillary....

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M11 Mi82- Bacteriophage

Q: Which of the following statement is true about bacteriophage:

(a) It is a bacterium
(b) It helps in transformation
(c) It imparts toxigenicity to bacteria
(d) It transfers only chromosomal gene



                                                                                                   A: c. It impairs....

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M11 Mi81- Lyme's disease

Q: Lyme's disease all are true except:

(a) Borellia burgdroferi replicates locally and invades locally
(b) Infection progresses inspite of good humoral immunity
(c) Polymorphonuclear leucocytosis in CSF suggest meningeal involvement
(d) IgA intrathecally confirms meningitis.



                                                                                                   A: c. Polymo......

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M11 Mi 80- Streptococcus

Q: Streptococcus- all are true except:

(a) Streptodornase cleaves DNA
(b) Streptolysin O is active in reduced state
(c) Streptokinase is produced from serotype A,C,K
(d) Pyrogenic toxn A is plasmid mediated.



                                                                                           A: d. Pyrogenic.....

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M11 Mi79- Lambda phage

Q: Lambda phage- which of the following is true:

(a) It causes mad cow disease
(b) Lysogenic to lytic conversion cannot occur
(c) Lysogenic form incorporates host DNA and remain dormant.
(d) Lytic phase incorporates in host DNA, proliferate and causes rupture of cell.



                                                                                                   A: c. Lysogenic ...

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M11 Mi78- Non typhoid salmonella

Q: All are true about non-typhoid salmonella except:

(a) Poultry is source
(b) Can cause invasive disease in neonates
(c) Blood culture is more sensitive than stool culture in gastroenteritis in adults.
(d) Resistance to fluoroquinolone has emerged.



                                                                                                   A: c. Blood culture...

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M11 Mi77- Brucella

Q: All are true about brucella except:

(a) B.abortus is capnophilic
(b) Transmission by aerosol can occur occasionally
(c) Pasturisation destroys it
(d) 2ME is used to detect IgA.



                                                                                                   A: d. 2ME is ....

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M11 P76- Opiods

Q: Muscle rigidity due to opioids is because of their effect on:

(a) mu
(b) kappa
(c) sigma
(d) delta



                                                                                                   A: mu

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M11 P75- Naloxone

Q: Which of the following is not a side effect of naloxone:

(a) Seizure
(b) Hypertension
(c) Pulmonary edema
(d) Ventricular dysrhythmia



                                                                                                   A: a. Seizure

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M11 P74- Tamoxifen

Q: Use of tamoxifen for breast cancer can cause all of the following except:

(a) Thromboembolism
(b) Endometrial carcinoma
(c) Carcinoma in contralateral breast
(d) Cataract.



                                                                                                   A: c. Ca in contra...

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M11 P73- ACE inhibitor

Q: Regarding ACE inhibitor, which of the following is true:

(a) Inhibits conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
(b) t-half of enalapril is more than lisinopril
(c) Omission of prior diuretic dose decreases the risk of postural hypotension
(d) It is effective only with left ventricular systolic dysfunction.



                                                                                                   A: c. Omission of...

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M11 P72- Bleomycin

Q: Bleomycin toxicity is characterized by destruction of:

(a) Endothelial cells
(b) Type I pneumocytes
(c) Type II pneumocytes
(d) Alveolar macrophages



                                                                                                   A: b. Type I pneumo

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M11 P71- Sickle cell anemia drugs

Q: Which of the following drugs is used in sickle cell anemia:

(a) Hydroxyurea
(b) Carmustine
(c) Paclitaxel
(d) Bleomycin



                                                                                                   A: a. Hydroxyurea

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M11 P70- Mitomycin

Q: Topical mitomycin C is used in the treatment of:

(a) Basal skull Ca
(b) Tracheal stenosis
(c) Skull base osteomyelitis
(d) Angiofibroma



                                                                                                   A: b. Tracheal....

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M11 P69- Diazoxide

Q: All the following are true about Diazoxide except:

(a) K+ channel opener
(b) Can be used as antihypertensive
(c) Causes severe hypoglycemia
(d) Used in insulinoma



                                                                                                   A: c. Causes severe...

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M11 P68- ESBL

Q: All are true about ESBL except:

(a) Sensitive to carbapenems
(b) Ambler classification is based on molecular structure
(c) Classification is based on third generation cephalosporin sensitivity
(d) 3rd and 4th gen. cephalosporin sensitivity testing is must to confirm the ESBL.



                                                                                                   A: d. 3rd & 4th gen..

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M11 P67- Octreotide

Q: Octreotide is used in all except:

(a) Insulinoma
(b) Glucagonoma
(c) Glioma
(d) Carcinoids




                                                                                                   A: c. Glioma

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M11 P66- Megaloblastic anemia

Q: Which does not cause megaloblastic anemia?

(a) Phenytoin
(b) Chloroquine
(c) Sulfasalazine
(d) Alcohol



                                                                                                   A: b. Chloroquine

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M11 P65- Angina

Q: Which of the following does not worsen angina:

(a) Sumatriptan
(b) Oxyfedrine
(c) Dipyridamole
(d) Thyroxine



                                                                                                   A: b. Oxyfedrine

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M11 P64- Ifosfamide

Q: All are true about Ifosfamide except:

(a) It is nitrogen mustard
(b) Metabolised by CYP3A4 to form active metabolite
(c) Chloroacetaldehyde is active form
(d) Less neurotoxic than cyclophosphamide.



                                                                                                   A: d. Less.....

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M11 P63- Cotrimoxazole

Q: Which of the following is not an indication of cotrimoxazole:

(a) Lower UTI
(b) Prostatitis
(c) Chancroid
(d) Typhoid



                                                                                                   A: c. Chancroid

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M11 P60: Methotrexate

Q: Methotrexate is used in all except:

(a) Sickle cell anemia
(b) Psoriasis
(c) Rheumatoid arthritis
(d) Ankylosing spondylitis



                                                                                                   A: a. Sickle...

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M11 P60: Hypoglycemia

Q: Which does not cause hypoglycemia:

(a) Insulin
(b) Glimepiride
(c) Natglinide
(d) Acarbose



                                                                                                   A: d. Acarbose

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M11 P61- Exenatide

Q: All are true about Exenatide except:

(a) Decreases glucagon secretion
(b) It is GLP1 analogue
(c) Used in type I DM
(d) Given subcutaneously



                                                                                                   A: c. Used in....

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M11 P59: Hypoglycemia

Q: A patient develops hypoglycemia. He was on insulin and acarbose. For treatment of above, what is to be given:

(a) Glucose
(b) Maltose
(c) Sucrose
(d) Starch


                                                                                                   A: a. Glucose

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M11 P58- Pioglitazone

Q: False about pioglitzone:

(a) It is a PPAR-alpha agonist.
(b) It is metabolized in liver.
(c) Not given in case of diastolic dysfunction.
(d) It acts on insulin gene and even in absence of insulin, helps in metabolism of carbohydrate.


                                                                                                    A: (d) It acts on....

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M11 C57- Net Protein Utilization

Q: Which of the following statement is true about Net Protein Utilization:

(a) It is the ratio of energy from protein to total energy in diet.
(b) It is the ratio of total nitrogen retained by total nitrogen intake multiplied by 100.
(c) It is the amount of one aminoacid per gram of a protein divided by amount of same amino acid per gram of egg protein
(d) If the NPU is high, the amount of protein requirement in diet is high.


 

                                                                         A: b. It is the ratio of total nitrogen....

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M11 C56- Maternal mortality

Q: In India, most common cause of maternal mortality is:

(a) Anemia
(b) Hemorrhage
(c) Abortion
(d) Obstructed labour



                                                                                                   A: b. Hemorrhage

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M11 C55- Water purification

Q: All of the following about purification of water are true except:

(a) Presence of clostridial spores indicate recent contamination of water
(b) Coliforms must not be detectable in any 100ml sample of water
(c) Sodium thiosulphate is used to neutralize chlorine
(d) Coliforms maybe detected by multiple tube and indole production methods.



                                                                                                   A: a. Presence of.....

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M11 C54- Incidence

Q: Incidence can be calculated by:

(a) Prospective study
(b) Retrospective study
(c) Case control study
(d) Cross sectional study.



                                                                                                   A: a. Prospective.....

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M11 C53- RCT

Q: About Randomized control trial, all are true except:

(a) Baseline characteristics are comparable
(b) Bias can be eliminated by double blinding
(c) Sample size depends on the type of study
(d) Dropouts are excluded from the study.



                                                                                                   A: d. Dropouts.....

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M11 C52- Breast milk

Q: Not true about breast milk is:

(a) Maximum output is seen at 12 months
(b) Coefficient of iron absorption is 70%
(c) Calcium utilization from breast milk is more than cow's milk
(d) Breast milk is reference protein.



                                                                                                   A: a. Max output....

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M11 C51- Cluster sampling

Q: True about cluster sampling are all except:

(a) Sample size is same as that of simple random sampling
(b) It is a two stage sampling
(c) It is cheaper than other methods of sampling
(d) It has the disadvantage of higher sampling error.



                                                                                                   A: a. Sample size....

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M11 C50- Fish nutrition

Q: Fish is deficient in which of the following nutrients:

(a) Iodine
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Iron
(d) Phosphorus.



                                                                                                   A: a. Iodine

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M11 C49- BCG

Q: Which of the following statement is true about BCG vaccination:

a. Distilled water is used as diluent for BCG vaccine
b. The site for injection should be cleaned thoroughly with spirit
c. Mantoux test becomes positive after 48 hours of vaccination
d. WHO recommends Danish 1331 strain for vaccine production.



                                                                                             A: d. WHO reco......

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M11 C48- Incineration

Q: Incineration is not done for:

 a. Cytotoxic drugs
 b. Cotton contaminated with blood
 c. Waste sharps
 d. Human tissue                             



                                                                     A: c. Waste sharps.

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M11 C47- DDT

Q: The following about DDT is false:

 a. Pyrethrum has synergistic action
 b. It is a contact poison
 c. Immediately kills the pray
 d. Residual effect lasts for 18 months.



                                                                                                   A: c. Immediately...

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M11 C46- Larval control

Q: Following are larval control measures except :

 a. DDT.
 b. Paris green
 c. Gambusia
 d. Intermittent irrigation



                                                                                                       A: a. DDT

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M11 C45- Vaccine preservative

Q: Which of the following about vaccines is false :

  a. Thiomersal is preservative in DPT vaccine.
  b. Magnesium chloride is stabilizer used in OPV.
  c. Kanamycin is preservative in measles.
  d. Neomycin is preservative in BCG vaccine.



                                                                                                  A: d. Neomycin....

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M11 C44- Population stages

Q: Late expanding stage of population in India is due to   :

 a. Birth rate stationary, death rate continues to fall.
 b. Death rate declines more than birth rate.
 c. Birth rate declines, death rate same.
 d. Birth rate is less than death rate.     



                                                                                              A: b. Death rate .....

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M11 C43- Childhood TB

Q: A 30 yrs old female has sputum positive TB. Her child is 3 years old. What is the recommended chemoprophylaxis:

a. INH 3mg/kg for 3months.
b. INH 5mg/kg for 3months.
c. INH 3mg/kg for 6months.
d. INH 5mg/kg for 6months.


                                                                                                                 A: d. 5 for 6

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M11 F42- MCI act

Q. According to MCI act, medical education granted by Indian universities come under:

a. Schedule I of MCI Act.
b. Schedule II of MCI Act.
c. Part I of schedule III.
d. Part II of schedule III.            


                                                                                         Ans: Schedule I of MCI act

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M11 F41- Adipocere

Q. Condition promoting adipocere formation:  

a. Dry and hot.
b. Hot and humid.
c. Dry and optimum.
d. Cold and moist.



                                                                            Ans: b. Hot and humid

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M11 F40- Civil negligence

Q. In civil negligence, onus of proof lies on:  

a. Judicial first degree magistrate.
b. Police not below the level of sub inspector.
c. Doctor.
d. Patient.



                                                                            Ans: d. Patient.

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M11 F39- Poisoning rain drop

Q. A middle aged man comes to OPD with paraesthesia of hands and feet, hyperkeratosis of palms, rain drop pigmentation and transverse lines on nails. Most likely person is having:  

a. Arsenic posoning .
b. Lead poisoning.
c. Mercury poisoning.
d. Cadmium poisoning.  

 
                                                                                         Ans: a. Arsenic poisoning.

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M11 F38- Spinal cord autopsy

Q. During autopsy, if spinal cord is to be examined what is the most commonly used approach:   

a. Anterior.
b. Posterior.
c. Lateral.
d. Anterolateral.


                                                                            Ans: b. Posterior.

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M11 B37- Sickle cell disease

Q. True about sickle cell disease are all except:

a. Single nucleotide change results in change of glutamine to valine.
b. Sticky patch is generated as a result of replacement of a non-polar residue with a polar residue.
c. HbS confers resistance against malaria in heterozygotes.
d. RFLP results from a single base change.



                                                                            Ans: b. Sticky patch is gen.....

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M11 B36 - DNA replication

Q. After digestion by restriction endonucleases, DNA strands can be joined again by:  

a.DNA polymerase
b.DNA ligase
c.DNA topoisomerase
d.DNA gyrase


                                                                          Answer: d. DNA gyrase

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M11 B35- Acetyl CoA

Q. Acetyl CoA can be converted directly to all except:

a. Glucose
b. Fatty acids
c. Cholesterol
d. Ketone bodies.



                                                                          Answer: a. Glucose

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M11 B34 - Triplex DNA

Q. Triplex DNA is due to

 a. Hoogsteen pairing
 b. Palindromic sequences
 c. Large no. of guanosine repeats
 d. Polypyramidine tracts      



                                                                   Answer: a. Hoogsteen pairing

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M11 B33 - Histone acetylation

Q. Histone acetylation causes:

 a. Increased heterochromatin formation.
 b. Increased euchromatin formation.
 c. Methylation of cystine.
 d. DNA replication.



                                                                          Answer: b. Increased euchromatin.

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M11 B32 - Protein mobility

Q. Movement of protein from nucleus to cytoplasm can be seen by:

 a. FISH
 b. FRAP
 c. Confocal microscopy
 d. Electron microscopy



                                                                          Answer: b. FRAP

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M11 B31 - Gene duplication

Q. Gene duplication plays an important role in the evolution of:

 a. mRNA
 b. rRNA
 c. tRNA
 d. hn RNA




                                                                                      Answer: a. mRNA

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M11 B30 - Hormone receptors

Q. Among the following, all are hydrophilic hormones that act on cytosolic receptors except one which is a lipophilic hormone that acts on nuclear receptor:

 a. Thyroxine
 b. Epinephrine
 c. GH
 d. ACTH



                                          Answer: a. Thyroxine

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M11 B29 - mRNA Apo

Q. Apo B48 & Apo B100 is synthesized from the same mRNA, the difference between them is due to:

 a. RNA splicing
 b. Allelic exclusion
 c. Deamination of cytidine to uridine
 d. Upstream repression



                                          Answer: c. Deamination of cytidine to uridine

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M11 B28 - Gs cholera

Q. Following modification occurs in Gs subunit which leads to watery diarrhea in cholera:

 a. ADP ribosylation
 b. ATP-ADP transfer
 c. Phosphorylation
 d. Dephosphorylation



                                          Answer: a. ADP ribosylation

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M11 B27 - LAC operon

Q. CAP in LAC operon is

 a. Positive regulator
 b. Negative regulator
 c. Attenuation
 d. Constitutive expression.



                                          Answer: a. Positive regulator

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M11 B26- Dietary Fibre

Q. Which of the following is not degraded by colonic flora?

 a. Pectin
 b. Lignin
 c. Starch
 d. Glucose

                                        

Answer: b. Lignin

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M 11 P 25 - Nitrogen narcosis

Q. Nitrogen narcosis is due to :

a. Nitrogen inhibits dismutase enzyme.
b. Increase production of nitrous oxide.
c. Increased solubility of nitrogen in nerve cell membrane
d. Decrease in oxygen free radicals.

                                          Answer: c. Increased solubility of nitrogen in nerve cell membrane.

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M 11 P 24 - Renal clearance

Q. Which of the following statement is true?

  a. Fluid coming from descending limb of loop of Henle is hypotonic.
  b. Descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to solutes.
  c. If clearance of a substance is greater than GFR, then tubular secretion must be present.
  d. Clearance of a substance is always more than GFR if there is tubular secretion.                                        



Answer:
c. If clearance of a substance is greater than GFR, then tubular secretion must be present.

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M 11 P 23 - CSF pressure

Q. CSF pressure is mainly regulated by:

  a. Rate of CSF formation.
  b. Rate of CSF absorption.
  c. Cerebral blood flow.
  d. Venous pressure.



                                          Answer: b. Rate of CSF absorption.

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M11 P22 - Postprandial motility

Q. Maximum post prandial motility is seen in:

  a. Ascending colon.
  b. Transverse colon.
  c.  Descending colon.
  d. Sigmoid colon.



  Answer:
c. Descending colon

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M11P21 - Angiotensin

Q. Angiotensin II causes all of the following except:
  a. Stimulation of thirst.
  b. Aldosterone secretion.
  c. Increased ADH secretion.
  d. Vasodilation.


  Answer:
d. Vasodilation

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M11P20 - Myocardial Oxygen

Q. True regarding myocardial Oxygen demand:
  a. Inversely related to heart rate.
  b. Has constant relation to external cardiac work.
  c. Directly proportional to the duration of systole.
  d. Is negligible at rest.


  Answer:
b. Has constant relation to external cardiac work.

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M11P19 - Regulation of respiration

Q. The primary direct stimulus for excitation of central chemoreceptors regulating ventilation is:

a.Increased H+          
b.Increased CO2          
c.Increased O2             
d.Decreased CO2


    Answer:
a. Increased H+

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M11P18- Energy expenditure

Q. Energy expenditure in resting state depends on:

a. Lean body mass.
b. Adipose tissue.       
c. Resting heart rate.          
d. Exercise.                                      


Answer:
a. Lean body mass.

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M11P17- Vasomotor centre

Vasomotor centre of medulla is associated with:

a. Acts with the cardiovagal centre to maintain BP.
b. Independent of corticohypothalamic inputs
c. Influenced by baroreceptors, not chemoreceptors
d. Essentially silent in sleep.


Answer:
a. Acts with cardiovagal centre to maintain BP.

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M11P16- Shunt Vessels

True about shunt vessels:

a. Evenly distributed throughout the skin.
b. Role in nutrition
c. Play a role in thermoregulation
d. No autonomic nerve regulation

Answer:
c. Play a role in thermoregulation.

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M11P15- Animal Cold Exposure

True regarding animals that are chronically exposed to cold?
a. Increased sympathetic stimulation
b. Increased vagal action.
c. Increased insulin levels in blood
d. Decreased blood supply to adipose tissue.


Answer:

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M11- A14: Axillary abscess

Axillary abscess is safely drained by which approach?

a. Medial

b. Posterior

c. Lateral.

d. Floor.




Answer: d. Floor.

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M11- A13: Sternocleidomastoid- Blood supply

Sternocleidomastoid is supplied by all of the following arteries except:

a. Occipital

b. Posterior auricular.

c. Thyrocervical trunk.

d. Superior thyroid.




Upper third-  Occipital artery.

Middle third -  Superior thyroid a.

Lower third - Suprascapular a.


Answer: b. Posterior auricular.

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M11- A12: Triangle of auscultation

Boundary of triangle of auscultation is not formed by:

a. Serratus anterior.

b. Scapula.

c. Trapezius.

d. Lattisimus dorsi.






Answer: a. Serratus anterior

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M11- A11: Scapular muscles

All of the following muscles retract the scapula except:

a. Trapezius.

b. Rhomboid major.

c. Rhomboid minor.

d. Levator scapulae.





Answer: d. Levator scapulae.

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M11- A10: Spleen

Spleen projects into the following space of peritoneal cavity:

a. Paracolic gutter.

b. Infracolic compartment.

c. Left subhepatic space.

d. Greater sac.



Answer: d. Greater sac.

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M11- A9: Barium Contrast

On contrast radiography, which among the following is false?

a. Ileum is featureless.

b. Colon has haustrations.

c. Jejunum is feathery.

d. Distal part of duodenum has a cap.




Duodenography showing
A--- Duodenal cap ( 1st part )
B--- Ascending ( 2nd part)
C--- Horizontal ( 3rd part )
D--- Ascending ( 4th part )



Answer: d. Distal part of duodenum has a cap

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M11- A8: Axillary Sheath

Neurovascular bundle in axilla is surrounded by sheath derived from :

a. Prevertebral fascia.

b. Pretracheal fascia.

c. Clavipectoral fascia.

d. Axillary sheath.


Answer: a. Prevertebral fascia

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M11- A7: Root of Mesentery

Root of mesentery is crossed by,

a. Horizontal part of duodenum.

b. Left gonadal vessels.

c. Left ureter.

d. Superior mesenteric artery.




Structures crossed by root of mesentery:

1. Horizontal (3rd) and Ascending (4th) part of duodenum.
2. Abdominal aorta.
3. IVC.
4. Right Ureter.
5. Right Psoas major.
6. Right gonadal vessels.

MNEMONIC: HAI Red PUG



Answer: a. Horizontal part of duodenum

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M11-A6: Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by all except:

a. Amyloidosis.

b. Hypothyroidism.

c. Addisson's disease.

d. Diabetes mellitus.




Answer: c. Addison's disease.

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M11- A5: Sphincter of Oddi

Sphincter of Oddi consists of how many sphincters :

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5




Sphincter of Oddi consists of:

1. Superior choledochal sphincter.
2. Inferior choledochal sphincter.
3. Pancreatic sphincter.
4. Sphincter ampullae.


Answer: c. 4 sphincters

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M11- A4: Trochlear Nerve

Trochlear Nerve- all are true except:

a. Longest intracranial course.

b. Arises from dorsum of brainstem.

c. Supply ipsilateral superior oblique muscle.

d. Enters orbit through sup. orbital fissure, outside annulus of Zinn.


See the crossing over of the nerves on the dorsum to opposite sides.

See trochlear lying outside annulus of Zinn



Answer: c. Supplies ipsilateral superior oblique muscle.

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M11- A3 : Clavicle Ligaments

3. The weight of the upper limb is transmitted to axial skeleton by all except:

a. Coraco-acromial ligament.

b. Claviculo-clavicular ligament.

c. Costo-clavicular ligament.

d. Acromio-clavicular ligament.





The answer is obvious from the above diagram, as coraco-acromial is between the two parts of the scapula itself.


Coraco-clavicular is the major ligament transmitting upper limb weight to the clavicle.




STERNO-CLAVICULAR JOINT:



Answer: c. Coraco-acromial ligament.

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M11- A2 Internal Auditory Canal


2. Vertical crest in fundus of the internal auditory canal is known as :

a. Bill's bar.

b. Ponticulus.

c. Cog.

d. Falciform crest.

The internal auditory canal is the bony channel in the posterior fossa, that houses the facial (VII), cochlear and vestibular (VIII) nerves. At the fundus it is split horizontally by the falciform or transverse crest. The superior portion of the canal above the transverse crest is again split into anterior and posterior parts by vertical crest or Bill's bar.

It is used as a surgical landmark for facial nerve identification during translabyrinthine surgery.



Contents of the Internal Auditory Canal


7.Up = Cranial nerve 7 ("7-up, coke down")
BB = The Bill bar
Coke = Cochlear nerve ("7-up, coke down")
IVN = Inferior vestibular nerve
SVN = Superior vestibular nerve
TC = Transverse crest

Answer: a. Bill's bar.

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M11-A1: Scapular Anastomosis

1. In a subclavian artery block at outer border of first rib, all of the following arteries help in maintaining the circulation to upper limb except:

a. Subscapular artery.

b. Superior thoracic artery.

c. Thyrocervical trunk.

d. Suprascapular artery.



Scapular anastomosis between

1st part of Subclavian   and 3rd part of Axillary arteries


Axillary artery -divided by pectoralis minor into 3 parts

Branches:

1st part- one----->     Superior Thoracic artery

2nd part- two ----->  Thoraco-acromial artery
                                  Lateral thoracic artery

3rd part- three -----> Subscapular artery.
                                  Anterior circumflex humeral a.
                                  Posterior circumflex humeral a.

Mnemonic: She Tastes Like Sweet Apple Pie.

Subclavian Artery- divided by scalenus anterior into 3 parts:

Branches:

1st part: ---> Vertebral artery
                      Internal Thoracic
                      Thyrocervical trunk---->3 branches --Inferior thyroid,
                                                                                 Transverse (sup) cervical,
                                                                                 Suprascapular   


2nd part----> Costocervical trunk---->2 br-- Superior intercostal a.
                                                                       Deep cervical a.


3rd part-----> No branch ( occ dorsal scapular a. or suprascapular)


Mnemonic: VITamin C & D



Very Tired Individuals Sip Strong Coffee Served Daily:

Vertebral artery
Thyrocervical trunk
---Inferior thyroid
---Superficial cervical
---Suprascapular
Costocervical
---Superior intercostal
---Deep cervical




                                                                                     
                   



Axillary- branches






Answer: b. Superior thoracic artery

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